Homosexuality & The Bible: Zondervan Under Fire
Many of you will have recently read about the lawsuit filed against Zondervan by Bradley Fowler, demanding $60 million as recompense for the suffering caused by what he sees as a misinterpretation of Scripture. MSNBC reports here:
“His suit centers on one passage in scripture — 1 Corinthians 6:9 — and how it reads in Bibles published by Zondervan. Fowler says Zondervan Bibles published in 1982 and 1987 use the word homosexuals among a list of those who are “wicked” or “unrighteous” and won’t inherit the kingdom of heaven. Fowler says his family’s pastor used that Zondervan Bible, and because of it his family considered him a sinner and he suffered.”
I am by no means a legal expert, but I highly doubt that this lawsuit will stand up in court. First, the publisher is printing an interpretation of an historical document. If anything, the lawsuit should be filed against the interpreters (though, again, it is doubtful this case has much merit). In truth, the more accurate translation would likely has resulted in the conclusions and treatment by the people the plantiff cites.
However, aside from the legal merits of this case, I believe the issue Fowler raises- that is the misuse of the word “homosexual” in Bible translations- is a very valid one. While the meaning behind the terms in the pre-translated text might ultimately parallel with the meaning most Christians attach to the word “homosexual”, the translation is both inaccurate and inappropriate.
The question is this: Does “homosexual” mean someone who practices homosexuality or does it mean someone who primarily or exclusively attracted to those of the same sex? Is there a difference between these options? A man in prison might have sex with other men, but have no sexual attraction for the same sex, while someone (like myself) might live with same-sex attraction their whole life, but never act on it. By some definitions I am a homosexual and the prisoner is not, others say I am not, but the prisoner is, while still others say that neither example are homosexuality.
My point is not to suggest that this Scripture is ambiguous about the issue of same-sex relationships (though it is, perhaps, far less clear than some Christians would like to believe), but rather that the term “homosexual” comes with such loaded meaning in our era that it is irresponsible to use it in these context without going beyond translation into interpretation. Obviously, all translations inevitbaly makes this over-step on some level, but especially so in this situation. I believe we will better preserve the authentic message and meaning of Scripture by avoiding terms that, in our own context, mean something different than originally intended, even if only by small degrees.
Again, I do not believe that Bradley Fowler has a case, either with the publishers or the translators, in respect to his alleged suffering. However, I do believe he raises a valid concern about the reliability of culturally loaded translations of Scripture.
What do you think? Is it just semantics? Please let me know what you think.
UPDATE: For clarity sake, let me reiterate that in this post I am not arguing the morality of homosexuality, or even trying to establish a firm definition for the term “homosexual”. Rather, I am arguing that the term has too much baggage to be used in a Biblical translation. This is NOT suggesting that the Bible doesn’t address the issue of same-sex attraction/involvement, but simply that the word itself (not the meaning we attribute to it) is inaccurate in that context.
Zondervan Homosexuality Homosexual Bible Christianity Lawsuit Bradley Fowler